Because being half magical and being a quarter magical are very large differences. Hagrid received a complete half of a magical creature in his DNA. That blood blocks a lot of magic from working and makes him equal parts human and giant, Fleur is the product of someone who is already half and merged with a full human. It thins the magic down quite a lot, so while she got the good looks of her veela ancestry she is still 3/4ths human and therefore able to do most things as a human would. 

of course they actually work.

Unless you’re not magical then of course they will not.

yes.

it’s fairly simple, is the child muggleborn? No, how can it be? Both of it’s parents are magical.

is the child pureblood? No of course not, both of it’s parents are muggle-born!

the only thing left is halfblood.

And remember, anyone with a muggle on the family tree is halfblood, because a muggle means they cannot be pure.

The thing about the elder wand is that, because of it’s nature, it will often choose to ally itself with whom it believes to be the better wizard. It is a wand of power and it craves it just as much as those who seek to own it. In wand lore it is not uncommon for wands to lose allegiance to their owners, when you get a wand you’re told it’s flexibility. The flexibility is how well it will work if someone else were to use it and basically it’s loyalty principles. unicorn hair is the most loyal of course where as dragon heart string is the least. The elder wand, however, has a core of thestral hair. A very unstable core for a wand.

Thats why its history is written across all of wizarding history. It belonged to one person until a better person came along, then the wand would choose to stop working for it’s present owner and work for another. When it stopped working for the previous owner it could be ‘won’ and thus transfer into the hand of the other. And that is how Dumbledore ‘won’ it from Grindelwald, the wand could sense that Dumbledore was the better wizard, the one with more power, so it arranged to get into his possession. 

Nearly the same thing happened to Harry Potter. Due to the circumstances the wand ended up belonging to Mr. Potter. Even though Voldemort had it in his literal possession, it was allied with Harry and took him to be the better wizard. And so it didn’t work for Voldemort and in the end rebounded his own spell against him.  

Anonymous said:

He isn’t, and thats quite the point. Jo said it wasn’t important so she didn’t tell us. And re-reading the books because now you know doesn’t change his character one bit. It is the readers views and opinions that make it seem like he’s different. I assure you he’s the same wise eccentric old man he was the first time you read it, you’d just be interpreting things differently and on purpose the next read-through. 

I know we’ve been away for a long while, but we’re in the process of returning.

Terribly sorry for leaving without notice, we do hope you forgive us.

In the coming weeks we should be getting back to answering things, we’re going to give the blog a new theme and organize the questions we’ve still got in the askbox. 

Thank you to those of you who have stayed with us through this hiatus, and welcome to everyone new! 

(as always, i must remind the new followers to make sure they read the sidebar to understand what this blog is about <3)

This was answered by Jo in her interview at Carnigie Hall

I have been asked that a lot. Harry was exceptionally fortunate in that he had Fawkes. So before he could be destroyed without repair, which is what is necessary to destroy a horcrux, he was mended. However, I made sure that Fawkes wasn’t around the second time a Horcrux got stabbed by a basilisk fang, so the poison did its work and it was irreparable within a short period of time…. I established early in the book, Hermione says that you destroy a Horcrux by using something so powerful that there’s no remedy. But she does say there is a remedy for basilisk poison but of course it has to be administered immediately and when they stab the cup later - boy I’m really blowing this for anyone who hasn’t finished the book - there’s Fawkes, is my answer. And thank you for giving me a chance to say that because people have argued that quite a lot.

So essentially, it didn’t die because Harry didn’t die.

Who do I personally think? 

It’s Ron, its got to be. It’s always been. Ron is the best friend, Hermione was the smart one. When Harry had to choose between them in every book it was always Ron. He didn’t like only having Hermione around during Goblet of Fire because she was ‘boring’, Ron was the thing he’d miss most out of everything and he never asked Ron to compromise in Half Blood Prince when he and Hermione weren’t speaking but asked it of Hermione over and over. 

Hermione is his friend, I think it’s safe to say best friend as well as Ron. Because the three of them are the Trio. But if Harry could only give the title to one person theres no doubt in my mind that it would be Ron. 

I know Snape is a half blood because one of his parents was a muggle, but what about Harry? If a pureblood wizard and a muggle-born wizard have a child is that child still considered a pure blood?

Bloodlines are tricky. If you’re descendant from even one muggle it makes you a half blood. So if your great great grandmother was a muggle, you’d still be considered a half blood, because you couldn’t be pureblood obviously. 

Thats why the purebloods blast squibs and bloodtraitors off their trees, so that that line (which would be half blood) isn’t on there and the family remains pure. 

As Jo has said, it’s rather rare to find any actual pureblood because they’ve all lied and things to stay that way. 

Anyway, Harry is a Halfblood because his grandparents are both muggles. Therefore on one side he came from a long line of Wizards and on the other he came from a long line of Muggles.

Where as the weasleys came from two long lines of wizards. The Prewetts and the Weasleys. 

I hope that cleared it up! 

because i think i understand it, but i thought that dumbledore already knew that snape loved lily.

Certainly I can try! 

When Dumbledore first got Snape over to their side he used Snape being the reason the girl he loved was in danger against him. So Snape joined back in the 80’s because Dumbledore promised to hide Lily and, after being disgusted with Snape for not caring about them, her family. However we all know that Voldemort got them in the end and after that, Dumbledore used Snapes immense guilt over the entire thing to ensure his service even further. 

“If you loved Lily Evans, if you truly loved her, then your way forward is clear. You know how and why she died. Make sure it was not in vain. Help me protect Lily’s son.”

So there you have the beginning. The memory you’re asking about happened sixteen years after that. Dumbledore had believed Snape capable of change, as he so often does see the best in people so when Snape expressed outrage when told that Harry Potter had to die, Dumbledore asked if it was possible he had come to care for the boy after all.

yes, Snape had joined his cause at the beginning because of his love for Lily, but it had been so long we have to assume Dumbledore thought it would fade. So that when he asked if he cared about Harry, and Snape essentially denied it and cast his patronus, Dumbledore knew for certain that his love for Lily Evans had never wavered. It surprised him most likely, so he asked “After all this time?” and Snape confirmed with “Always”

Full question:

In Harry Potter and Philosopher’s Stone; The First years are called for the sorting in alphabetical order. Padma Patil is called then Parvati Patil, followed by a “Perks, Sally-Anne” then comes Harry Potter’s turn. In Harry Potter and the Order of Phoenix; In the OWL practicals and theories the fifth years are seated or called again in alphabetical order. This time Harry’s turn comes right after Parvati, Where did Perks, Sally-Anne go?

There are so many theories surrounding this girl it’s astonishing. The truth is though that she neither died nor failed a year or anything like that— but simply moved.

to Canada.

As a halfblood she had a muggle Father who’s business had been failing for quite some time and he, along with her mother, decided that a fresh start would be good for them. They’d hoped to move before Sally got to far into school but it didn’t pan out the way they hoped and they ended up moving right before her fourth year at Hogwarts (she never got to see the triwizard tournament but she surely heard about it from her friends)

She transfered to a wizarding school in Toronto while her parents went on to work in the stage and theatre business where they do quite well.

**

Of course not! They were all perfectly safe, there was a great deal of effort put into making the tournament as safe as possible (what with dragons and things it got difficult at times though) Harry is the only one who took the song seriously. Had Fleur not rescued Gabrielle in time the merfolk would have returned her to the surface once the time had run out, safe and sound.

The full question was:

In the books they say that the ministry could not tell the difference between who in the household created the magic, but they had “known” it was harry who did magic in the order of the phoenix when they sent him to court. But in the chamber of secrets when dobby did magic they didn’t send Harry to court, if they didn’t even know dobby was there, so they would have “known” , it was harry, right?

The reason the Ministry was sure without a doubt (both in Chamber and in Order) that Harry had done the magic was because there are no other registered Witches or Wizards anywhere in the area around Harry. 

The thing about Trace is that it has many many holes in it’s theory. An underaged wizard from a wizarding family can do magic in the household without repercussion because the ministry cannot track a single person and because there are adult wizards doing magic around their kids most of the time, they just ignore those infringements on the trace. 

But because the ministry knew there were no other magic folk around Harry Potter so any magic being done must have been from him. 

There is the odd unexplainable exception every now and then in the books though, such as in Order when Mundungus disapparated from Privet Drive. No warning was sent then, it was only later when Harry used the Patronus Charm that the trace activated. Though it’s possible that the trace doesn’t register apparation since the users are supposed to be of age anyway.

So, back to the question, in Chamber of Secrets they didn’t send Harry to court because the magic wasn’t very advanced. They sent him a warning, however, because he wasn’t supposed to be using any out of school. The Ministry is aware that emotions evoke bouts of magic in young wizards and witches though so even if he had gotten a court date they probably would have let him off. 

Blowing up his aunt in Prisoner got him quite a warning as well and if Fudge hadn’t been so worried about him that may have resulted in a court hearing but… we all know how that went.

I hope this answered your question, I was a little confused by it. 

Well we have to take into consideration who we’re talking about here. Sirius Black was James Potter’s best mate. The two of them were bigger troublemakers then the weasley twins. They knew every nook and cranny of that castle and mapped it.

The castle is impenetrable to dark and outside forces, Sirius Black was pretty much neither of these things though everyone thought he was. He knew the secret passage ways, he knew the tricks to getting in and on top of that he could transform into a dog.

Sneaking into the castle late at night when no one was up and about wouldn’t exactly be hard for someone like him, and once in he knew every secret passage to keep hidden, but he didn’t go in often if you’ll remember. He used crookshanks to keep an eye on peter for him and only went into the castle twice. The first time was when the portrait wouldn’t let him in, so he got the cat to steal Neville’s passwords and the 2nd time was when Ron awoke to him over his bed.

**